Nathan W. Bingham
Connecting in a Hyper-Connected World

Would You Preach From The End Of Mark's Gospel?

…based on textual critical evidence many wouldn’t. But what about John 7:53-8:11 the “woman caught in adultery”?

We were discussing this in class the other day and we acknowledged the following strange occurrence. There aren’t many sermons preached on Mark 16:9ff, but there are comparably more sermons preached on the “woman caught in adultery” from John 7:53-8:11. Yet, it is generally agreed based on textual critical evidence that there is more support for Mark’s ending than for the “woman caught in adultery”.

So, would you preach from the ending of Mark’s gospel as the Word of God, and if not, are you consistent in your treatment of other passages? I have a feeling that it may be as the content of Mark’s ending is more difficult than the story of the “woman caught in adultery” that it’s therefore a lot easier to skip. This would explain the apparent inconsistency.

Please, this is not a post to discuss textual criticism and the KJV vs. other translations. I’m interested in hearing from those who can accept the two propositions that Mark 16:9ff and John 7:5-8:11 are not likely original and that the evidence is greater for Mark’s variant than John’s, and how your treatment of each compares in preaching. Naturally, if you differ on those two propositions you suffer no difficulty or inconsistency at all.